Fair Exchange

A recent court case in which a guy in the UK removed a rubber while having sex with a call-girl - The guy was later charged with rape and prosecuted. It was determined that the consent was based on a pre agreed upon understanding that a condom would be used; When the man removed the rubber and continued to have sex the implied consent was no longer valid. So I thought to myself.... If that is the case...

If a woman tells a man that shes on birth control but is deceptive and really not; Looking to dupe a shmuck into being a financial provider or lock him into 18 years of child support - Shouldn't then the same rule or concept be applied? I think their might be a bit of a double standard when it comes to how we perceive the victim in a predetermined situation.

And people wonder why someone would buy a Real Doll - In such a situation it would be much cheaper in the long run.

Just junk food for thought? Comments? Any Thoughts? Feel free to comment.